What did you ask her?
Since she claimed the King James Translation (KJV) of the Bible into English is literally perfect in every way, I figured that would be a simple place to start.
In the book of Isiah, the word "Lucifer" is used. Why is a
Latin word used in a Jewish scripture, especially for a proper name ? (I.E.: "Lucifer" could
not have been used in the original text)
For someone who made such bold claims about the bible, she had not even a single clue about it's history. I think the "just have faith" attitude leads to the "blind leading the blind".
note: Some fundies here in the US hold the view that the KJV is "perfect" and no other translation should be used. Some even go as far as to say it is an "inspired" translation. This is in spite of the fact that the group of men who made the KJV openly admitted that their work was not perfect. Most theists I meet are far more reasonable than this.