yeah, but the point is it is very laughable to think that Muhammed claims *his* desires are God's revelations!
I don't find it so laughable considering verses like this:
33:36 It is not fitting for a Believer, man or woman, when a matter has been decided by Allah
and His Messenger to have any option about their decision: if any one disobeys Allah
and His Messenger, he is indeed on a clearly wrong Path.
There's certainly a lot of scope here for Mohammed to claim his desires as God's revelations, and my personal opinion is that he did so quite regularly.
I already told you the verse is not clear and can only be clarified in light of 17:73-75...
----------------------022.052
YUSUFALI: Never did We send a messenger or a prophet before thee, but, when he framed a desire, Satan threw some (vanity) into his desire: but Allah will cancel anything (vain) that Satan throws in, and Allah will confirm (and establish) His Signs: for Allah is full of Knowledge and Wisdom.-----------------------------
According to this verse all the previous prophets (including or excluding Mohammed?) had, at some point, their "desires" influenced by Satan. Could this mean that these prophets desired something because of Satan and were duped into producing false revelation to attain those desires? The language in the remainder of the verse would suggest so: why else would Allah be 'cancelling' the results of these desires to confirm his own signs (signs=revelations more often than not?).
------17:73-75
And they almost tempted you to turn away from that which We have revealed to you, that you should forge against Us other than that, and then they would certainly have taken you for a friend.
And had We not made you firm, you almost inclined to them a little;
And if you did We would certainly have made you to taste a double punishment in this life and a double punishment after death, then you would not have found any helper against Us. ------------------
Are you saying here that this verse is showing that Mohammed was not subjected to Satan's influence like the other prophets were before him? If so, does the double punishment and damnation part apply to all the previous prohets who did incline towards their enemies at one point or another, due to Satan's influence?
PS. could you please use that scary avatar? I miss it!
Aye, I'll try to get it.