9 year old girls are still developing. Just because she is menstruating does not mean she is ready to go through pregnancy and give birth. It increases the chances (quite dramatically) of her or her child dying. She would not be ready to raise a child at that age either, and there is a risk of damaging her so that she may never be able to get pregant anyway.
I understand what you mean and Therationalizer brought up this point earlier in the thread...
1. They had no way of knowing this at the time.
2. Her body basically produced an egg that was available to be fertilized so we honestly can't blame anyone (at the time) for thinking she wasn't ready for intercourse/reproduction.
3. If she has gone through puberty and there are no laws against her marriage at the time we can't deny her the human right to reproduce. Women in their late 40's have a large chance of complications during pregnancy and birth defects...would it be fair to outlaw 40-50 year old women reproducing today?
4. there are 12 years olds having babys now in the USA.
She never did, so I'm guessing theres a strong chance it may have happened.
It would be unfair to specualte on this. She was married to muhammad for 9 years and then never married again after this. In those 9 years muhammad was sleeping with 8-11 different women on a regular basis and was only able to father 1 child! If anything there was a problem with him.
Not so long ago there was a story of a child bride bleeding to death because she wasnt ready for penetration.
I dont know about this story. The concept of child brides is fucked up but I'm only trying to judge in the case of Muhammad.
I probably have ancestors that fucked goats. Difference is, I don't base my own behaviour according to theirs.
Please don't think I'm trying to justify these actions in this day and age. I'm just trying to point out that the behaviour of Muhammad was really no different than the rest of the world (up until recent history)
No. People have suffered needlessly because he said he was the perfect example for mankind. We have a duty to condemn him.
I agree. But we have to be fair and there are hundreds of ways you can show the falsehood of Islam.
Do you have to be exclusively attracted to children to be deemed a paedophile?
Actually since aisha was post pubescent he would be a hebephile. And yes he would have to be primarily attracted to pre-pubescent children to be considered a pedo in the "official" sense of the word. Also he could have fucked all the young girls he wanted there was nothing stopping him but he didnt do this.
here are some links on both...
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hebephiliahttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/PedophiliaWe aren't singling him out. He did that.
He did do it. But so was everyone else in Arabia and the rest of the world really.
For instance hippocrates was greek and they did all kinds of fucked up shit. Hippocrates prolly fucked a 9 year old boy but nobody is discounting the contributions he made to modern medicine.
PS i hope your computer situation turns out ok haha
Topic: Evolution and Morality