hello all. does anyone know where the word "'Isa", the name referring to Jesus in the Quran comes from, and why is it such a "puzzle" to scholars?
I thought that the obvious answer would be that it was used by the Arabs of the time of the Quran, and the author(s) simply used that word. This is what Alphonse Mingana said, in
here, that "So far as the word 'Isa (the name given to Jesus in the Kur'an) is concerned, it was apparently in use before Muhammad, and it does not seem probable that it was coined by him. A monastery in South Syria, near the territory of the Christian Ghassanid Arabs, bore in A.D. 571 the name 'Isaniyah, that is to say, "of the followers of Jesus," i.e. of the Christians". But then there's
Arthur Jeffery, who states "The form 'Isa, however, does not occur earlier than the Qur'an, whereas <Yasu3> appears to have been used in personal names at an early period. Till further information comes to hand we shall have to content ourselves with regarding it as some form of "konsonanten permutation" due, maybe, to Muhammad himself, and perhaps influenced... by Nestorian pronunciation". strangely enough, he puts a reference to Mingana's quote regarding the Isaniyya monastery when saying that "'Isa" didn't occur earlier than the Quran. Here's a more contemporary account by
James Bellamy that "'Isa has no satisfactory derivation and no pre-Koranic history". So which one is right? was there or was there not pre-Quranic use of 'Isa?
Then I would think that perhaps the Quran's author is following some sort of rule in translating foreign words into Arabic. Jeffery then writes, regarding the ayn in front of 'Isa and the disappearing ayn at the end: "It is not unusual to find Arabic using an initial ayin in words borrowed from Aramaic, and the dropping of final ayin is evidenced by the form Yisho of the Manichaean "koktiirkish" fragments from Turfan, and the late Jewish Yeshu for Yeshua'".
If so, then what's so puzzling about the origin of the word "'Isa" that is said by scholars? I feel like I'm missing something here. if the translation of 'Isa is in accordance with the conventions of Arabic, and there were pre-Quranic usage of 'Isa, then how come it's not an open and shut case? why the statements about it being made by Muhammad, or that there is no satisfactory derivation, with theories of it actually being Esau, or that is rhymes with Musa, or it was originally Masiyya, etc?
what is the opinion of current scholarship regarding this word? any illuminations regarding this issue would be appreciated.