Skip navigation
Sidebar -

Advanced search options →

Welcome

Welcome to CEMB forum.
Please login or register. Did you miss your activation email?

Donations

Help keep the Forum going!
Click on Kitty to donate:

Kitty is lost

Recent Posts


اضواء على الطريق ....... ...
by akay
Today at 01:32 PM

Lights on the way
by akay
Today at 09:01 AM

Qur'anic studies today
by zeca
Today at 08:53 AM

New Britain
Yesterday at 08:17 AM

Gaza assault
by zeca
November 27, 2024, 07:13 PM

What music are you listen...
by zeca
November 24, 2024, 06:05 PM

Do humans have needed kno...
November 22, 2024, 06:45 AM

Marcion and the introduct...
by zeca
November 19, 2024, 11:36 PM

Dutch elections
by zeca
November 15, 2024, 10:11 PM

Random Islamic History Po...
by zeca
November 15, 2024, 08:46 PM

AMRIKAAA Land of Free .....
November 07, 2024, 09:56 AM

The origins of Judaism
by zeca
November 02, 2024, 12:56 PM

Theme Changer

 Topic: The Conflict Between Islamic Recitation of the Qur'an and the Quranic Text

 (Read 2469 times)
  • 1« Previous thread | Next thread »
  • The Conflict Between Islamic Recitation of the Qur'an and the Quranic Text
     OP - September 02, 2016, 12:46 AM

    This is a sensationally interesting post that one of the Leiden guys put up a couple days ago regarding the Arabic of the Qur'an, part of a series of articles he is writing on the quranic rasm (QCT, more or less).  It is complicated, but the point is that the noun "Thamud" is given an artificial grammatical reading by Islamic tradition, and artificial case endings, that conflict with the rasm of the Qur'an.  The rasm consistently and clearly treats Thamud as a 'triptote' noun, but the Hafs recitation (Cairo Qur'an) inflects it as a 'diptote' noun, insisting on following the grammatical rules of Classical Arabic---where the noun is stated in the accusative by the Qur'an, as indicated with a triptote case ending, the tradition puts a sukun, a null-marker, over the final alif to tell the reciter 'pretend this alif is not here and treat it as if it is a diptote' when reciting it.  Even weirder, the Nafi' tradition correctly reads the word like a triptote in such accusative contexts, but then inflects it as a diptote (!) in genitive contexts, giving the word its own artificial hybrid grammar, different from any other word.

    http://phoenixblog.typepad.com/blog/2016/08/thamudic-triptotes-and-the-issue-of-discontinuity.html

    So the discontinuity question is simple:  How can these kinds of bizarre re-readings have happened?  Why are Islamic recitation and quranic text so different?

    And if such strangely artificial misreadings of the Qur'an's grammar could be imposed without anybody seemingly noticing or objecting, how can the text ever have related to early Islam?  This discontinuity is only possible if (a) the Qur'an was written down very early in popular dialect and then artificially misread by later tradition (my view) in a classical dialect (this is like Vollers' thesis), or (b) if the Qur'an was written down late under Uthman in a 'wrong' vulgar dialect, and then--for some bizarre reason--nobody objected to that, and the 'wrong' dialect was permanently retained in the manuscript, against its 'correct' prophetic recitation, as retained by Islamic tradition.

    "This raises a variety of questions: Why was a 'Classical Arabic' framework imposed over the original Quranic composition? Where did this Classical Arabic-like dialect come from? How big would this "linguistic conspiracy" have to be, to plausibly not show up at all in the traditional Muslim historical narrative? Are we not seeing the "conspiracy", because we have not looked at the historical texts with this question in mind, or has it really been covered up?

    A more charitable stance towards the traditional historical narrative presented by Muslims, would allow us to assume that the readings, with all their Classical Arabic-like case vowels, are 'more correct' than the QCT orthography. Even if we assume this, we must still admit that the confused case of ṯamūd as presented here, is a later artificial intrusion. If the readings are 'correct' while the QCT somehow represents a much more advanced Arabic dialect that lost its final short vowels, one might imagine why ʕabdullāh ibn Masʕūd was critical of the canonized Quranic Consonantal Text commissioned by the third Caliph Uthman, which would be the reflection of a spoken dialect very far removed from the Arabic dialect in which the Quran had been revealed. [2]

    This approach raises many questions: Why would the Caliph have allowed the Quran to be written down in such a vulgar reading? Was it an attempt to make the Quran more accessible to the 'lay man'? Why did this canonical text gain such traction, while the language of the popular readings remained squarely opposed to the orthography presented in the canonical text? Why was the dialect in which the QCT was written down so different from the real dialect of the Quran, while it must have been canonized mere decades after the death of the prophet?

    Either scenario brings along a lot of enormous questions, which I don't think will be answered any time soon. But the fact remains, that the fundamental disconnect between the language of the reading traditions, and the language of the Quranic Consonantal Text needs to be explained in some way. I hope my previous articles on the disconnect between the QCT and the modern readings are felt, by my readers, also to be so fundamental as to require an explanation e.g. as the developments and loss of *ʔ, the diptosy of the feminine ending, the loss of nunation, retention of ē, (and also ō?) etc."

    Btw, my own view on these questions remains rather simple ... the Qur'an was never particularly integral to the early spread of Islamic rule (which does not mean it did not exist!), and its association with the historical Medinan prophet was far more tenuous and limited than is usually understood.  It was written down quite early in 'vulgar' Arabic dialect (IMO), and the later conquest-era polities retained little clarity about how to correctly recite it or what its earliest textual layers meant/how they originated.  As the archaic texts gained importance as a compiled religious text, the Islamic tradition exalted it with archaizing recitation traditions that had little authentic connection to the text's originating context.  This is why goofball errors like the mispointing of had as gadd in Q 72:3 could go completely unnoticed ... the rasm was correct, and was accurately preserved, but there was no authentic preservation of how you recited that text or what much of it meant.

    This is one reason why I favor the 'early Qur'an' theory.  I can't see how it's even possible that such discontinuities could emerge unless the base texts were written down quite early.  Otherwise you have to postulate the bizarre scenario, outlined by the Leiden guy above, where the Qur'an was much later written down by Uthman in a vulgar dialect that conflicted with how it was normally recited at that time.  And then you also have to explain why so much of the Qur'an's language and references (e.g. the mysterious letters) were incomprehensible for the later tradition.  That would seem almost impossible if it was composed very late.  People would have retained a much better understanding of what it meant and how it was recited.
  • The Conflict Between Islamic Recitation of the Qur'an and the Quranic Text
     Reply #1 - September 02, 2016, 03:09 AM

    Quote
    'Umar b. Khattab said: I heard Hisham b. Hakim b. Hizam reciting Surah al-Furqan in a style different from that in which I used to recite it, and in which Allah's Messenger (Peace be upon him) had taught me to recite it. I was about to dispute with him (on this style) but I delayed till he had finished that (the recitation). Then I caught hold of his cloak and brought him to the Messenger of Allah (Peace be upon him) and said: Messenger of Allah, I heard this man reciting Surah al-Furqan in a style different from the one in which you taught me to recite. Upon this the Messenger of Allah (Peace be upon him) told (me) to leave him alone and asked him to recite. He then recited in the style in which I beard him recite it. The Messenger of Allah (Peace be upon him) then said: Thus was it sent down. He then told me to recite and I recited it, and he said: Thus was it sent down. The Qur'an was sent down in seven dialects. So recite what seems easy therefrom.

    Sahih Muslim, Volume 2, Book 4, Hadith 1782

    Quote
    Ibn 'Abbas reported Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him) as saying: Gabriel taught me to recite in one style. I replied to him and kept asking him to give more (styles), till he reached seven modes (of recitation). Ibn Shibab said: It has reached me that these seven styles are essentially one, not differing about what is permitted and what is forbidden.

    Sahih Muslim, Volume 2, Book 4, Hadith 1785

    What were the seven different dialects referred to in these hadith?

    "Life is not a matter of holding good cards, but of playing a poor hand well."
    - Robert Louis Stevenson
  • The Conflict Between Islamic Recitation of the Qur'an and the Quranic Text
     Reply #2 - September 02, 2016, 03:45 AM

    olweasel, the seven dialects are those of seven different Arab tribes during the time of Muhammad.

    Quote
    The forms matched the dialects of following seven tribes: Quraysh, Hudhayl, Thaqîf, Hawâzin, Kinânah, Tamîm and Yemen. The revelation of the Qur'an in seven different ahruf made its recitation and memorization much easier for the various tribes.

    Quote
    The Qur'an continued to be read according to the seven ahruf until midway through Caliph 'Uthman's rule when some confusion arose in the outlying provinces concerning the Qur'an's recitation. Some Arab tribes had began to boast about the superiority of their ahruf and a rivalry began to develop. At the same time, some new Muslims also began mixing the various forms of recitation out of ignorance. Caliph 'Uthman decided to make official copies of the Qur'an according to the dialect of the Quraysh and send them along with the Qur'anic reciters to the major centres of Islam. This decision was approved by Sahaabah and all unofficial copies of the Qur'an were destroyed. Following the distribution of the official copies, all the other ahruf were dropped and the Qur'an began to be read in only one harf. Thus, the Qur'an which is available through out the world today is written and recited only according to the harf of Quraysh.[8]

    Source
  • The Conflict Between Islamic Recitation of the Qur'an and the Quranic Text
     Reply #3 - September 02, 2016, 03:49 AM

    Quote
    "This raises a variety of questions: Why was a 'Classical Arabic' framework imposed over the original Quranic composition? Where did this Classical Arabic-like dialect come from? How big would this "linguistic conspiracy" have to be, to plausibly not show up at all in the traditional Muslim historical narrative? Are we not seeing the "conspiracy", because we have not looked at the historical texts with this question in mind, or has it really been covered up?

    Whoever wrote this article doesn't seem to know much about the history of the Quran. It's pretty well established that Quranic recitation was standardized in the dialect of Quraysh, i.e. the Najdi dialect of the time. It wasn't a conspiracy; it was an official standardization implemented by Uthman during his reign and agreed upon by all the Sahaabah.
  • The Conflict Between Islamic Recitation of the Qur'an and the Quranic Text
     Reply #4 - September 02, 2016, 05:12 AM

    He's actually exceedingly knowledgeable about it.  The classic Islamic narrative is that the Quran was revealed in the dialect of the Quraysh, which is the same as the arabiyya poetic dialect, which is essentially the same as Classical Arabic.

    What he is saying is that the recitation traditions are artificial and do not match the Quran's text.  Whether that text reflects dialect A, B, or C is a different question.  Point is they are not the same, flat out.  Why they are different is the question.  Islamic tradition argues that they are not different, yet that is wrong because they clearly are discontinuous in several key respects.  The Arabic of the text looks a lot more like the Arabic of the early conquest era inscriptions, not like the Najd-style Arabic the tradition recited the text in.

    Not only did Uthman not unify this gap, given the very  limited nature of Arabic script in his era, it was not orthographically possible to do so.  That is why seven different recitation traditions could arise in the first place.  There were no textual constraints sufficient to prevent that split.

    Even the Islamic tradition struggled to explain why the Quran was recited with a medial glottal stop, as with the Arabic of the najd, when the Arabic of the Hijaz conspicuously lacked that feature.  And the Quran's rasm lacks a medial glottal stop as well, consistent with Hijazi Arabic.  So why did the tradition use dialect to recite the Quran that differed in this key respect from the language actually spoken in the Hijaz and from that embodied in the Quran's rasm?  That is just one example of the discontinuity problem.  Insisting that everything is the same does not explain the discontinuity away.
  • The Conflict Between Islamic Recitation of the Qur'an and the Quranic Text
     Reply #5 - September 02, 2016, 02:34 PM

    Zaotar

    it seems al jalad got interested in the QCT Smiley

    https://www.academia.edu/28203911/Was_it_s%C5%ABrat_al-baq%C3%A1rah_Evidence_for_ante-penultimate_stress_in_the_Quranic_Consonantal_Text_and_its_relevance_for_%D8%B5%D9%84%D9%88%D9%87_type_nouns
  • The Conflict Between Islamic Recitation of the Qur'an and the Quranic Text
     Reply #6 - September 02, 2016, 04:29 PM

    Yeah I saw he posted that new draft this morning ... any new article from Al-Jallad is going to be awesome, but one that addresses the QCT is especially awesome.  His concluding paragraph makes the exact point I was making above about the difference between the QCT's orthography and the Islamic recitation traditions ....

    "The spellings of the loanwords ṣlwh and zkwh follow the native pattern of III-w nouns in the QCT. This suggests that they were re-worked into the noun pattern CaCaWatu. To explain this spelling and its allomorph with an alif before pronominal suffixes, I have argued that, like many modern dialects of the Arabian Peninsula, these nouns had ante-penultimate stress, and the different realizations of the triphthong awa can be predicted from this starting point. While this explanation helps us explain the QCT spellings in a linguistically consistent way, it does suggest that the original pronunciation of the QCT is not reflected in any extant reading tradition, as none make a distinction between the realization of the reflex of the triphthong in ṣlwh compared to ṣlʾt-k.  I leave the implications of this conclusion to students of Islamic Studies."

    It continues to amaze me how little work has been done on explaining so many central aspects of the QCT language.  Things like how stress and rhyme worked are largely defaulted to the dogmas of Islamic recitation tradition, with no serious effort made to assess them via technical modern linguistic analysis, just a regurgitation of traditional dogmas.  Thankfully the guys at Leiden are finally turning to some of these issues, and their analysis is sensationally interesting to follow.
  • 1« Previous thread | Next thread »