So instead of answering my yes/no question with either a yes or a no, you answered by asking me a yes/no question. Anyway, here's my answer:
Yes. It's what I do. I'm rude.
Maybe the verse does and maybe it doesn't. But I think the one that Rationalizer posted certainly does. But I checked other translations and some of them give a different interpretation.
In any case, I think all the verses combined make it quite clear that what she was doing is seen (from Allah's perspective) as wrong.
I can hardly even be assed to argue about this, to be honest. I don't really care that much. But lemme look at some reasons you give.
1- The Sura was re-telling the story of Joseph.
2- The Sura was quoting what people said.
3- The wife of the Aziz was already married. In that society, a married woman who has sex with other men is betraying her husband.
4- Joseph didn't want to have sex with her for two reasons: 1- He didn't want to committt fornication. 2- He didn't want to betray his master who was kind to him.
1- Yes.
2- The Qur'an often quotes people, particularly prophets when they speak, regarding their words as adhering to the views of Allah. Maybe you'll say that these people weren't prophets, but it's quite clear that the Qur'an does not disagree with their statement, and indeed, it certainly looks as though it endorses it.
3- Yes. And yet the Qur'an seems to agree with this attitude.
4- So it IS fornication for a woman to have sex with her slave, but not for a man to do so. He didn't want to betray his master? His wife is also his master, or mistress, and slaves are supposed to obey their masters in Islam. Even the ahadith support this.
Another thing. If Allah's prophets agree with Allah's morals, then they would know that it's acceptable for a man to have sex with his slaves. Yusuf's reluctance to have sex with his master's wife shows that it is wrong, insofar as Allah's morality is concerned, for women to have sex with their slaves.
Just my take on it.
Topic: Comments on Debunker and IA debate