We can keep going with this until you bring up *existence*. Both man and God exist. Now, certainly this doesn't mean God has NOT to exist just because man does.
I actually wanted to bring up existence, but it would have been too easy ;P
"Certainly it doesn't mean..."?
Why certainly?
Are you adding yet another hypothesis? ^_^
Or I could say that certainly your definition of God is inconsistent, for example

Now, you said:
Actualy God says man's freewill is relative or subjective (man's free will is within God's will). God is the one who gave the immortal soul to man. (And, btw, unlike man who loses conscieness during sleep, a coma or death, God is ever aware).
Define "man's free will is within God's will".
And define "God gave the immortal soul to man".
I see two problems there:
1) You will be unable to quantify how "free willed" X is compared to Y unless you imply that the will of X is a subset/superset of the will of Y... in which case you are claiming that one is part of the other, which in the case of the will of man and God would imply that the will of man is a subset of the will of God and, thus, perfect by your definition of God being made of "all and only perfect subparts".
2) God "giving" the immortal soul to man somehow implies that man is not his soul. Which I think goes a little against the definition of what a soul is.
Besides that, it does not address how the immortality of a soul is "less" than the immortality of God.
Unless you are somehow implying that if man's existence is a "gift" from God, then man is "less immortal" than God because God could technically snuff man out of existence.
Which leads to the usual question: but could God stop existing as well?
But it also leads to a more unusual question: can God make me stop existing as a reward if, for example, I go to heaven and I really desire to stop existing?
PS: maybe heaven is the blissful end of existence

PPS: that's so Buddhist.
PPPS: I am rambling now, disregard this whole post lol